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ASHRM CPHRM Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Healthcare Operations: This domain involves managing operational risk activities such as conducting risk assessments, developing policies, coordinating risk programs, supervising staff, and supporting patient safety initiatives.
Topic 2
  • Clinical
  • Patient Safety: This domain focuses on improving patient safety by promoting a safety culture, managing incident reporting, educating staff and patients, addressing ethical concerns, and implementing corrective actions to reduce risks and prevent harm.
Topic 3
  • Claims and Litigation: This domain focuses on handling potential claims and legal cases, including claim reporting, litigation support, legal documentation management, and analyzing claims data to understand risk exposure.
Topic 4
  • Legal and Regulatory: This domain focuses on ensuring compliance with healthcare laws and regulations, protecting patient information, managing reporting requirements, and supporting accreditation and regulatory responses.
Topic 5
  • Risk Financing: This domain covers managing financial risks through insurance programs, claims coordination, loss analysis, and developing strategies to reduce financial exposure.

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ASHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Sample Questions (Q72-Q77):

NEW QUESTION # 72
The Joint Commission requires that after a healthcare organization becomes aware of a sentinel event, it must complete a root cause analysis and action plan within how many days?

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, The Joint Commission's sentinel event policy requires organizations to complete a thorough root cause analysis and develop an action plan within 45 days of becoming aware of the sentinel event.
The root cause analysis must identify underlying system failures and contributing factors rather than focusing solely on individual performance. The resulting action plan must outline specific corrective measures, assign responsibility, establish implementation timelines, and include mechanisms to monitor effectiveness. The emphasis is on sustainable system improvement to reduce the likelihood of recurrence.
Failure to complete the analysis and action plan within the required timeframe may result in additional review, accreditation consequences, or other follow-up actions by The Joint Commission. Timely completion demonstrates organizational accountability, leadership oversight, and commitment to patient safety.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize structured investigation processes, documentation of corrective actions, and alignment with accreditation standards. Therefore, the required timeframe for completion of the root cause analysis and action plan following awareness of a sentinel event is 45 days.


NEW QUESTION # 73
When a hospital notes that most errors are occurring at the "sharp end," what does that mean?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The "sharp end" refers to the point in a system where clinicians directly interact with patients and deliver care-nurses administering medications, physicians performing procedures, therapists mobilizing patients, and so on. Errors at the sharp end are typicallyactive failuresthat are immediately visible, but they are often shaped by "blunt end" factors-staffing levels, training, equipment design, policies, and workflow constraints. Risk management objectives discourage blaming the sharp end alone; instead, they use incident analysis (RCA) to identify latent system conditions that make frontline errors more likely. Improving sharp- end safety includes standardization, teamwork tools (SBAR/TeamSTEPPS), human factors engineering, and reducing hazardous variability in processes. This systems approach helps prevent repeat events and supports a just culture where learning is prioritized while accountability is preserved for reckless conduct.


NEW QUESTION # 74
A patient who has suffered a stroke is aphasic and unable to swallow. The physician would like to place a PEG tube for feeding. The patient is considered incapacitated and his wife consents to the treatment. The patient's adult children do not. The wife and oldest daughter each present a power of attorney document identifying them as the designated decision makers. To support the ethical principle of patient autonomy, which of the following should the risk manager recommend?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, patient autonomy is upheld by honoring valid advance directives and durable powers of attorney for healthcare. When multiple documents are presented that designate different decision makers, the most recent properly executed document typically supersedes earlier versions, unless state law provides otherwise.
Durable powers of attorney for healthcare may be revoked or replaced by executing a newer document.
Therefore, determining the effective document requires reviewing execution dates and ensuring validity under applicable state statutes, including witnessing and notarization requirements. The document with the more recent date generally reflects the patient's latest expressed wishes and controls decision-making authority.
Referring immediately to an ethics committee may be appropriate in unresolved value conflicts, but first establishing legal authority is essential. Asking the family to resolve the dispute independently delays necessary medical decisions and does not clarify legal standing. Selecting the older document would contradict the principle that later directives replace earlier ones.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize verification of surrogate authority, compliance with state advance directive laws, and protection of patient autonomy. Therefore, the risk manager should confirm which document is most recent and legally valid.


NEW QUESTION # 75
An unstable patient in the emergency department needs transfer to another hospital. Which of the following statements is true regarding the refusal of an on-call physician to treat this patient?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, obligations under the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act EMTALA govern on-call physician responsibilities. When a hospital maintains an on-call roster to provide specialty services for emergency department patients, physicians listed on call are required to respond and participate in the evaluation and stabilization of patients with emergency medical conditions.
An on-call physician may only be relieved of duty if legitimately unavailable due to circumstances beyond their control, such as actively caring for another patient or being otherwise unable to respond in accordance with hospital policy. Refusal to treat for convenience or non-clinical reasons may constitute an EMTALA violation and expose both the hospital and physician to regulatory penalties.
A blanket right to refuse care is inconsistent with EMTALA requirements. While financial discrimination is prohibited, refusal for other non-justifiable reasons may still violate federal law. Conversely, stating that a physician is never relieved of duty is inaccurate, as legitimate unavailability may excuse performance under specific circumstances.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize compliance with EMTALA, proper on-call coverage policies, and documentation of availability. Therefore, the correct statement is that relief occurs only when the physician is unavailable due to circumstances outside their control.


NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following documents will an insurance underwriter use to provide an insurance quote?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the insurance application is the primary document used by an underwriter to evaluate risk and generate a premium quote. The application provides detailed information about the organization's operations, services, patient volume, claims history, risk control measures, governance structure, and prior insurance coverage. This information enables the underwriter to assess exposure, determine eligibility, and calculate appropriate pricing and coverage terms.
A certificate of insurance is issued after a policy is in force to verify coverage to third parties and does not serve as a quoting document. The declaration page is part of an existing insurance policy and summarizes coverage limits, deductibles, and endorsements; it reflects finalized terms rather than information used to generate a quote. A certificate of need is a regulatory document related to state approval of healthcare facilities or services and is unrelated to underwriting.
Risk financing objectives emphasize accurate disclosure and thorough completion of insurance applications, as misrepresentation or omission may affect coverage validity. Therefore, the application is the document used by an underwriter to provide an insurance quote.


NEW QUESTION # 77
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